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Incorporating the 27 July Weekly Report.
It has been a rather busy time for The Collection Agency, picking up assets
in lieu of cash. Anyone need a badly treated, surplus to requirements, Bank
customer desk or ten? I can do job lots.
We start off with an excerpt from The Bernanke Conundrum written on 8th May
08:
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"You see, For Ben Bernanke the current situation isn't "news"
Bernanke has already studied the conundrum. I quote from "Non-Monetary
Effects of the Financial Crisis in the Propagation of the Great Depression" as
used in "New Keynesian Economics"(Mankiw and Romer Ch 29):
"An interesting aspect of the general financial crises - most clearly,
of the bank failures-was their coincidence in timing with adverse developments
in the macro-economy"
"The present paper builds on the Friedman-Schwartz work by considering
a third way in which the financial crises (in which we include debtor bankruptcies
as well as failures of banks and other lenders) may have affected output" .".....because
markets for financial claims are incomplete, intermediation between...borrowers
and....lenders required nontrivial market making and information gathering".
Bernanke then goes on to state that as the real costs of intermediation
rose some borrowers found credit to be expensive and difficult to obtain.
He then states:
"The effect of this credit squeeze on aggregate demand helped convert
the severe.....downturn of 1929-1930 into a protracted depression"
Bernanke goes on to identify various problems from the '20s that made
the 29-30 downturn, which included the expansion of debt and in 1930 the
move by banks out of the loan markets into more liquid instruments. Indeed
the 1932 National Industrial Conference Board survey of credit conditions
reported that the shrinkage of commercial loans in 1931 and the first half
of 1932 represented pressure from the banks on customers for repayment
and refusal by banks to grant new loans. The worry is that the Fed Chairman
saw no cure better than the one used in the '30s New Deal and the large
scale intervention of the federal Govt:
"home mortgage market...function....was largely due to the direct involvement
of the federal government....establishing ...FSLIC...federally chartered
savings and loans....government "readjusted" existing debts....and substituted
for recalcitrant private institutions in the provision of direct credit.
In 1934.....Home Owners' Loan Corporation made 71 percent of all mortgage
loans extended"
It looks to me that Bernanke has already instituted the measures he believes
will help avoid a repeat of '29-'33 by delivering the medicine now rather
than later. As we have seen earlier in this article, the medicine does
not seem to be affecting the patient. Credit availability continues to
contract due to the policies of banks. Ben Bernanke now finds himself in
a situation where he has delivered all he can to no avail. Does he sit
back and wait for a change in credit conditions to become apparent or is
there more that he can do?
Whatever he does, unless lending conditions change markedly and rapidly
in this quarter, it will be ineffective. Bernanke will no longer have to
refer to history to see a deflationary depression, he will be living it."
Well lending conditions certainly changed markedly and rapidly in this quarter
and not the way Ben Bernanke would have wanted. Fannie and Freddie, set up
in past decades to solve the same problems we face today are defunct, broke,
ripe for a knock on the door from yours truly.
Bluntly, you cannot expect to borrow short to fund long and survive. We have
seen all those who went out on mega-leverage with this business model either
fold or become unable to fund current positions, igniting a de-leveraging frenzy
as a desperate attempt was made to try and save some of the capital that was
used to make the positions.
We are now living the very scenario Bernanke studied; yes I am saying we are
at the beginning of a Depression the likes of which the World has never seen.
Of course those readers who read the excerpt from The Bernanke Conundrum can
see what is different this time.
In '29-'37 the Government stepped up to the plate when the private sector
stopped lending and originating mortgages by creating FSLIC et al. Now we don't
have that option, instead we have the prospect of watching the destruction
of the descendants of that '30s bailout.
Bernanke also pinpointed the other great problem of that era:
- "because markets for financial claims are incomplete, intermediation between...borrowers
and....lenders required nontrivial market making and information gathering".
When dealing with financial claims, originated upon assets or other debt,
based and priced purely on confidence you have a major problem. If no one quotes
a price the market dies. That is the problem right now in the "innovative" derivatives
world. When you or I trade futures, CFD's, options etc there is a counterparty
position created to whatever we decide to do. If there is no counterparty,
then the trade isn't completed.
However in the world of financial innovation, counterparty isn't required,
you draw up a contract with another trader and set some parameters. You pay
an income stream to maintain the contract and the other trader pays out if
a pre-determined default position is reached. The other trader decides whether
or not to lay off some or all of the risk, there can be no implicit acceptance
by the market or any other participants that this has been done. Unlike a traditional
derivative market (i.e. exchange traded) there may well be no "winner".
Financial innovation is based upon the premise that risk is more evenly distributed
and less likely to cause a choke point. Clearly the failure to price these
obligations (like an exchange, not mark to market) has led to today's problems.
Although some debt derivatives do now have a pricing structure, eg Markit.com it
is still reliant on participant disclosure, without which the contract remains
hidden. There is a very good reason to hide the details of these agreements.
If you, as the "other trader" did not spread some risk to the rest of the market,
you are fully exposed to a default event. If the position is disclosed others
may decide to take advantage of triggering a default, causing the concentration
of risk that was to be avoided.
During the good times, those heady days of massive leverage and cheap debt,
where massive income streams could be gained for agreeing to cover some improbable
event it must have felt too good to be true. Why bother laying off the risk
of some event that the risk models said was a 1-10,000 year event?
The only time a credit contraction is not deflationary is when no leverage
has been used. Without leverage, the money lent is spent and re-circulated
in the economy, ending up (or passing through) the lenders books (or some other
bank) as new income. The loan, if defaulted upon, has no direct impact on the
amount of money in the system - it is still circulating but belongs to someone
else.
However with leverage you are playing the margin game. If $1million is put
up as the collateral to a $10million loan, the leverage is 9-1. You supply
the 1 and the lender supplies the 9. All is well and good as long as you service
the $9million debt and its value is unchanged. If you can borrow short term
at low rates and lend the $10million long at high rates, it's a lovely day
for all. You keep rolling the short term debt for as long as it takes for the
long term loan to be serviced and paid off.
It's stunningly simple and very lucrative. Until it isn't.
If the collateral (cash, assets, derivatives it doesn't matter, its all created,
borrowed - none of it has an intrinsic value, other than confidence) is suddenly
viewed as being risky, then the value of the collateral is downgraded and becomes
lower in value.
So what happened to the value that was removed? It disappeared, it doesn't
get re-circulated and it doesn't re-appear on the borrowers books. It has gone
unless the value of the asset (including "money") goes up. The lender sees
(or instigates) the fall in value and demand more assets to make the value
back up on the collateral so that it matches the original nominal worth of
the borrowed amount.
Some might say that the devaluing of the asset resulted in a transfer of wealth
from the borrower using leverage to the lender. This didn't happen because
the collateral is used to secure a 9-1 proportion of the lent amount. In effect
the $9million lent was also devalued; the requirement to add to the original
collateral of the $1million was to cover the losses in the $9million. If the
asset was devalued 10% then the $9million would lose $900k. The collateral
is said to be worth only $100k as the losses are borne by the borrower, not
the lender. To make the collateral back up the lender needs to add $900k to
match the original amount, even though the lenders asset has dropped below
$9million (to $8.1million) if the borrower wishes to maintain the position.
To maintain the original worth of the position, a deflation of $900k
is required from the capital of the borrower. That capital cannot be recovered
unless the asset used as collateral is valued higher. It is this drawdown of
capital from the borrower that causes a deflation in available assets because
of the leverage involved.
As I have said more than a few times it is not a lack of printing that causes
a deflationary environment but the lack of circulation of cash (asset) through
the economy. The hoarding of cash to increase capital is the same as the Fed
removing banknotes and not replacing them or the raising of taxation without
a commensurate increase in Govt spending.
You do not have to stop or reverse the printing presses to cause deflation
and any student of the '29-'37 period should know this. The House market in
a large part of the western world is a stunning example of this un-leveraging
deflation.
House prices have collapsed because the funds used to extend mortgages to
borrowers have been withdrawn. The reasons do not matter, capital is being
withheld and the lending process has almost stopped. If you bought a house
worth $10million and used a $1million deposit, you borrowed $9million. If the
house is now only worth $9 million (asset write-down?) then if you sell you
will lose $1million. That's $1million of your capital gone, disappeared, not
re-circulating in the economy or reappearing on a banks book.
You have had a deflation of $1million, the bank received back the original
$9million amount lent. If you faced a loss bigger than your deposit you either
have to raise capital to pay more to the bank or the bank takes a loss on the
$9million and if the asset is priced correctly on its books, suffers a deflation
too.
Has Hank Paulson achieved what he set out to do when he left Goldman Sachs?
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