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Greenspan's remarks on economic volatility at a symposium sponsored by the FRB of Kansas City, Jackson Hole, Wyoming struck
some important themes for gold traders to contemplate. This of course includes
the (sort of) self-avowed gold bug himself, Alan Greenspan.
As an observation over the years I must say that his speeches from Jackson
Hole are particularly inspired. Maybe that's because he's among the best of
best friends.
The five main themes involved establishing the innocence of the central bank
in any of the bubble stuff that went on, during the nineties in particular,
by pinning the bubble phenomenon on investors alone; the notion that
greater market volatility is part of a process of adjustment that has become
quicker and more efficient, and which should be sufficient to explain both
the length of the expansion as well as a reduction of the frequency and amplitude
of the business cycle; that not only were investors to blame for an unsustainably
lower equity risk premium in their euphoric state, but also that structural
productivity gains accounted for the lower ERP; that a nascent asset bubble
can neither be identified, nor preempted with gradualist tightening policy;
and finally, there was some indication of the desire to move the Fed to a more
hawkish position.
Ever heard the saying, "never fight the tape\trend?" The other popular
expression is "never fight the Fed." What happens, however, when the Fed fights
the trend? Double talk, back peddling and pure nonsense… that's what.
I haven't seen so much taking credit for the successes and shifting blame
for the errors since leaving my post as a broker. If that's not what it was
then Mr. Greenspan's economics has become, well, dumber over the years. I am
not qualified to say that it has in reality, since we cannot know his true
views, but I think we can prove this in his public "remarks," which have certainly
become increasingly Keynesian at any rate.
But we all know that.
His argument meant to show that the data are consistent with what we would
expect in an environment where structural productivity gains were being crystallized,
but as well, he meant to argue it was the IT revolution which supported the
fundamentals that led to a bubble as investors got too giddy about them.
Unfortunately, what wasn't said was that the same data are also consistent
with what we might expect if the economy were to be subjected to one of the
longest running and easiest money policies in the history of the Federal Reserve
System.
Put it this way. If one wanted to learn how to sustain a system
of inflation they need go no further than Mr. Greenspan. Think about it! Why
else would the central bank stand so prominently in an economy that is without
inflation? What business is it of theirs that productivity and markets are
so efficient? I mean, in other words, if they have nothing to do with any of
the economy's remarkable performance, and if the markets are so efficient all
on their own, why bother to have a central bank, and why on earth are the chairman's
comments so important to everyone? Obviously it isn't the case that the Fed
is neutral, and to that extent, Greenspan goes a ways in justifying the Fed's
existence by pinning the markets best gains on its prior sound interest rate
policies, suggesting:
"In fact, our experience over the past fifteen years suggests that monetary
tightening that deflates stock prices without depressing economic activity
has often been associated with subsequent increases in the level of stock
prices" - Greenspan, August 30, 2002.
If the Fed wants credit for something, it has to clarify exactly what it wants
credit for? If it wants credit for sustaining low interest rates for so long
they've got it. If it wants credit for sustaining any inflation (too much money)
they've got it. If it wants credit for proving that an economic system dependent
on inflation can achieve a full-employment doctrine they've got it. But these
are all distractions from the important questions: what exactly are the policy-mechanisms
employed, are such processes sustainable and just, and to what extent can we
give the Fed credit for causing economic imbalances to accumulate? Of course,
these are all difficult to assess if the Fed denies it was inflation which
stoked the greatest bull market in stocks the world has ever seen.
Empirical evidence is hard to come by when dealing in economic reality. But
logical evidence is another thing, if I can say that, since I agree that most
things can only be regarded true to the extent they've yet to be proven false.
Proving Mr. Greenspan wrong is the bottom line (earnings). Proving us right
is that a system of inflation (too much money) could produce precisely the
same results we saw during the last decade, provided it could be sustained
and controlled for long enough.
At any rate, Mr. Greenspan was careful to pin credit for the reduction in
the volatility of the economic aggregates on market factors rather than the
Fed's aggressive spate of rate cuts since 2001. This way by not taking credit
for the smoothing of the negative wealth effect so to speak he establishes
the Fed's innocence during the bull market years. In fact, Greenspan spent
considerable space explaining why economic or political "shocks are more
readily absorbed than in decades past," by establishing a cause and effect
dynamic between investor confusion (market volatility) and "somewhat surprisingly,
(the) apparent 'reduction' in the volatility of output and in the frequency
and amplitude of business cycles for the macro-economy," entirely omitting
the impact of interest rate cuts and other government 'stabilization' policies
(or incentives) since 2001.
"The increased volatility of stock prices and the associated quickening
of the adjustment process would also have been expected to be accompanied
by less volatility in real economic variables. And that does appear to have
been the case" - Greenspan, August 30, 2002.
The omission was so obvious that anyone untrained in reading between the lines
would become expert after studying the speech.
While taking the fifth on inflation, Greenspan explains markets are more volatile
not because of government and Fed policy, as almost anyone would expect, but
because earnings expectations have become more assorted in the new economy.
Noting a rise in analysts' earnings forecasts coincident with rising risk spreads
in corporate bond markets during the late nineties he says:
"Higher average expected earnings growth coupled with a rising probability
of default implies a greater variance of earnings expectations, a consequence
of a lengthened negative tail. Consistent with a greater variability of earnings
expectations, volatility of stock prices has been elevated in recent years" -
Greenspan, August 30, 2002.
For Pete's sake you've got to be joking, right? The Fed Chairman figures this
to be a good indication of what, that stock market investors are the only ones
that didn't get it, and so the stock market is volatile? Indeed that's what
he implies, and later supports with the 20/20 (hindsight) claim that stock
values went beyond what their fundamentals suggested.
"The danger is that in these circumstances, an unwarranted, perhaps euphoric,
extension of recent developments can drive equity prices to levels that are
unsupportable even if risks in the future become relatively small. Such straying
above fundamentals could create problems for our economy when the inevitable
adjustment occurs" - Greenspan, August 30, 2002.
The way we understand it then, market volatility in the stock market is a
consequence of investor confusion, and it is measured by the recently widening
array of contradicting data in markets that remain less confused.
In other words, analysts say one thing, most markets say another, and the
stock market says something different entirely. That's nothing new. But Mr.
Greenspan implies that the disagreement is wider today than normal, which thus
explains the greater than normal volatility in stock prices. This is absurd
because market participants always disagree, which is why markets are liquid.
The only time they all agree is when the market moves in one direction for
some time and by great magnitudes. We call it a top or bottom. In an economy
that has been flooded with information technologies it is unsurprising that
the greater evidence of disagreement is easier to perceive. Good work Alan.
You're so observant.
Of course, the proper way to interpret the data is that uncertainty had been
rising, or at least became increasingly identifiable by the widening of bond
spreads indicating a rising aversion to risk. This doesn't mean that opinions
became more varied. In fact, they never were more united in one direction as
they were during most points in 1999/2000.
Mr. Greenspan uses his ingenious discovery as proof of the investors complicity
in order to shift blame for the resultant stock market volatility to the investor
and away from the Fed's inflation policies, which would have produced the same
results, since after all, inflation is both unpredictable in its ultimate manifestation
and affects individual valuation judgments. Thus, risk spreads would widen
equally due to this source of uncertainty, particularly when default rates
begin to accelerate, practically proving the condition of too much money. Sigh.
Nonetheless, within the framework of Greenspan's interpretation, it is clear
why he feels as though the Fed had no business interfering with such market
processes. After all, who would have thought that increased market volatility
would quicken the adjustment process? The crime, however, is that he very well
knows the Fed does nothing but interfere / guide market processes, and thus
cause confusion, uncertainty, and volatility, at least in the raw unmanipulated
data (as opposed to the aggregates).
Moreover, the idea that the greater market volatility (independent of the
Fed) is part of the process that is healing the economy's excess is true, but
this healing process has nothing to do with the reduction of volatility in
the economic aggregates.
That can best be explained by the degree of statistical smoothing in the data
as well as the aggressive rate reductions, and government incentives, which
have offset the negative effects of declining stock values on wealth via, you
guessed it, inflation.
The obvious source of market volatility for which the empirical evidence is
elusive is inflation. The obvious source of support for the economic aggregates
is inflation, or monetary policy.
So while the markets try and absorb the byproduct of profligate inflation
policies, thus becoming volatile, the government uses those policies to subsidize
consumption (to counter that volatility in the opposite direction), as though
the Fed were a safety net like we learned they were in school. The thinking
is Keynesian; that they could sustain certain growth engines while others heal,
and it is a widespread media and academic interpretation that they manage the
economy this way. It's in this way that monetary policy is intended to smooth
the amplitude of business cycles and has done so for the past twenty years.
Yet Mr. Greenspan denies it by claiming it's the resolution of investor confusion
that's healing the economy while at the same time he has the pedal to the metal
so to speak.
For instance, where Greenspan blames investors for being overly bullish we
blame the Fed, since inflation has been the cause of such poor valuation judgments
more often than not in the twentieth century. Why is 1995-2000 different? For
years we have cited inflation as responsible for the rising default rate, rising
risk spreads, and bullish analyst outlooks. How's our theory wrong? It isn't,
which is why he's gone to great pains to prove that there are other explanations
for the confluence of events, which led to the bubble and which followed it.
However, in arguing that structural productivity gains accounted for the permanent
lowering of the equity risk premium during the late nineties he incriminates
himself, sooner or later, because the facts contradict his statement of proof:
"There can be little doubt that if the nation's productivity growth has
stepped up, the level of profits and their future potential would be elevated" -
Greenspan, August 30, 2002.
Where are the profits then Mr. Greenspan? Forget about expectations, which
can be easily influenced by inflation policy; and pray tell why it is that
more Dow companies had their best growth years from 1990 to 1995, but their
best valuation years in the subsequent five year period?
Investor exuberance is the only answer. There could be many factors that drove
this exuberance directly, including an infatuation with technological developments,
but it was fueled by easy money policy as is typical in our economy, only not
normally to the extent of the nineties. Bull markets like that can't subsist
on psychology alone.
But all this talk is academic now. What is important to us is the future.
The bottom line is the Fed's used up its real ammunition, and it is now thinking
about how to pull off an interest rate hike without upsetting the US capital
markets. He's 'splaining.
Obviously, further reductions in interest rates seem increasingly inappropriate,
but it is interesting to note that if the Fed hadn't had the ability to lower
interest rates in several key situations over the past 20 years (including
1987's stock market crash) it would not be able to sustain anything, especially
not the longest running expansion on record today, and the resultant reduction
of volatility in the business cycle.
Consequently we argue the Fed's ability to lower interest rates and its skill
in sustaining the inflation allowed it to keep interest rates below market
equilibrium for so long that imbalances piled up in many markets. By sustaining
the inflation we mean it influenced stock values and supported dollar policy,
which in turn allowed them to keep rates low, and which in turn allowed them
to sustain the inflation... get it? But keeping rates low wasn't good enough.
They had to lower them to lower and lower levels to sustain the record expansion.
Each time it led to crisis, rates could go lower still, thus postponing the
inevitable corrective process of the market. But now we're near zero!
The past 20 years is irrelevant, at least until rates get back to market equilibrium
levels, where ever that is. If such a condition materializes then the outcome
is comparable within the context of the near 20 year monetary experiment. We've
already showed that inflation could be sustained over long periods of time
to the benefit of the purchasing power of fiat currency. Another 10 years would
surprise me in this age of information technology.
Despite the claim that hawkish monetary policy has been the source of stock
market gains in the long run, it appears that in the long run it is hard to
prove that monetary policy was anything but easy (see chart above).
If inflation (too much money) was the cause of the expansion in earnings multiples
(PE ratios) then it also engendered illusory or temporary profits as a consequence
of its dislocative effects on prices - signaling what and how much of something
producers should produce. Thus, capital was probably over invested in some
places and under invested in others.
When the business cycle troughs we expect to find out where those imbalances
were and then we'll have a better idea of what the decade's real earnings were.
So even though earnings grew somewhat in the late nineties, many grew slower
than they did in the early nineties; and if we're right that the late nineties
earnings weren't quite real in the first place then it is likely the deterioration
in earnings over the next few years will accelerate with the decline in stock
values as further excesses are wrung out.
There seems to me to be much more evidence that too much money drove valuations
in equities to the nosebleed section than there is that structural productivity
gains did over those years. The debate will go on for some time to come, but
one thing is for sure. While not quite denying inflation, by its omission as
well as the eager offering of the only other (so far) cogent explanation for
the data, the Fed is as guilty of bias as any corporation is of making
its own earnings forecasts, or as any analyst is of supporting research where
he or she stands to gain by doing so. At least their bias is disclosed.
Worse is that if the problem is too much money then the Fed is an outright
fraud. This is only true of course to the extent it presents its operating
activities in a light that isn't true, as it seems to do often.
Thus, by being active in this debate, the Fed makes itself a target of future
accusations of wrongdoing, which if it were passive it may have been able to
avoid. And by the extent of its increasingly generalist economics and double
talk Greenspan is essentially verifying its complicity in the inflation scheme
of the nineties.
Leave it alone Alan; why say anything if your confidence is so great that
the "associated quickening of the adjustment process would also have been
expected to be accompanied by less volatility in real economic variables. And
that does appear to have been the case." If it is the case, hush up and
let profits come back to validate your productivity argument.
The most important aspect of Greenspan's remarks, however, was the specter
of the move to a tightening he raised by citing the success of prior tightenings
in weeding out the excess and bringing valuations back in line with earnings
realities so that earnings can grow sustainably again. His words paraphrased.
"Certainly, a bubble cannot persist indefinitely. Eventually, unrealistic
expectations of future earnings will be proven wrong. As this happens, asset
prices will gravitate back to levels that are in line with a sustainable
path for earnings" - Greenspan, August 30, 2002.
What he's saying is that bubble valuations have to vanish before earnings
growth can be sustained in the future. If he could establish that valuations
still imply unrealistic estimations of future earnings then he has established
pretext for a sharp rise in interest rates to wring out the excess. He sounds
to be lobbying for just that.
But concurrently he argues that the Fed does not possess the ability to make
the judgment that expectations are unrealistic; that they lack the measures.
"Short of such a measure, I find it difficult to conceive of an adequate
degree of central bank certainty to justify the scale of preemptive tightening
that would likely be necessary to neutralize a bubble" - Greenspan, August
30, 2002.
The contradiction is somewhat puzzling and raises the question, why bring
it up then if you can't ID a bubble in time to take action? Maybe 'cause its
a warning shot across the bow.
Greenspan argues that bubbles can't be preempted by incremental interest rate
increases, he skillfully denies the Fed's responsibility in creating them,
and then says that the only way to preempt a nascent bubble is with "a sharp
increase in short-term rates that engenders a significant economic retrenchment." He
could be setting us up for a spike in interest rates and rationalizing an expansion
in the Fed's powers to "mitigate the fallout when it occurs and, hopefully,
ease the transition to the next expansion."
Conclusion
"Accumulating signs of greater economic stability over the decade of the
1990s fostered an increased willingness on the part of business managers
and investors to take risks with both positive and negative consequences.
Stock prices rose in response to the greater propensity for risk-taking and
to improved prospects for earnings growth that reflected emerging evidence
of an increased pace of innovation" - Greenspan, August 30, 2002.
Allow us to rewrite that, and indict the Fed:
Innovative easy money policies over the decade of the 1990s
fostered an increased willingness on the part of business managers and investors
to take risks with both positive and negative consequences. Stock prices
rose because risk became easier to manage; they rose because of the
effect on long term risk-reward assessments for equities by participants
as the result of the Greenspan put; they rose because interest rates were
too low; they rose because real profits appeared to grow; they rose for all
the reasons one would expect them to rise in an environment of successfully
engineered monetary policy; and they rose in response to several
bullish factors, whether sustainable or not, including the greater confidence
in earnings forecasts as well the prospects for profits resulting
from the emerging evidence of an increased pace of innovation.
C'mon Mr. Greenspan, you liked getting credit for it on the way up. The credit
for any stability in the economic aggregates goes directly to the Fed and the
administration's efforts to stabilize or postpone the consequences of the imbalances.
And so the Fed should also get credit for the way the imbalances unwind.
"An increased appetite for risk by investors, for example, is manifested
by a shift in their willingness to hold equity in place of psychologically
less-stressful, but lower-yielding, debt" - Greenspan, August 30, 2002.
The Greenspan Put is as effective an explanation for this shift as is productivity.
We saw it happen. We saw that when the Fed stepped up to the plate to ward
off a crisis, investors forgot completely about risk. We saw this clearly in
1987 & 1998, and less clearly in other circumstances over the past 20 years.
Asset bubbles are indeed the consequence of investor exuberance, but that
irrational behavior is easily, and dare I say better, explained as the manifestation
of inflation (too much money).
If inflation didn't exist, bubbles would not be the problem they are today.
They would be fleeting at most. For the Chairman of the central bank to talk
of the source of a bubble, and not cite inflation, he is obviously establishing
its defense. Look out below.
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