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Professor Robert Shiller of Yale University published his book Irrational
Exuberance at the height of the NASDAQ mania last year. Shiller
made the argument that stocks were overvalued and would produce
poor returns for the next ten years or longer. The principal
evidence he gave of overvaluation was a P/E ratio calculated
by dividing the S&P500 market index at a particular time
by the average of the index earnings over the previous ten years.
This ratio is shown in Figure 1 by the red line. Four peaks are
noticeable in the figure. They occurred in 1901, 1929, 1966 and
2000. Each of these dates immediately preceded a lengthy period
of poor stock performance and Shiller predicted that the same
would be true of the peak in 2000. Notice that the same cannot
be said for ordinary P/E ratios calculated using average prices
and earnings from the same year (black line in Figure 1). Short
term P/E values often peak during recessions, such as 1896, 1921,
1933 and 1992, when earnings are temporarily depressed. These
periods of high P/E are good times to buy stocks. By using a
ten year average to smooth out the earnings, fewer peaks are
seen and these reflect periods when stock prices are high following
substantial bull market rallies.
Figure 1. Ten-year and one year P/E values over time

Figure 2 shows a comparison between the 10-year P/E used by Shiller
as a valuation tool and P/R,
which I use to identify secular market trends. Both methods identify
the same long-term peaks in market valuation, although P/R shows
a fifth peak in 1881 also. The recent bull market peak achieved
higher levels of both P/E and P/R than any previous bull market
peak. In order to use these ratios to identify market peaks (i.e.
points of maximum valuation) one must compare the rising values
as the bull market progresses with previous high levels. In January
1997 the ten-year P/E of the S&P500 surpassed the previous
record set in September 1929. This implied that the stock market
was very high and that a major long-term peak was imminent. Indeed,
Dr. Shiller expressed his view that valuations were extremely high
by historical measures in his testimony before the Board of Governors
of the Federal Reserve System on December 3, 1996. In contrast
to P/E, P/R did not surpass its old high (set in 1901) until January
1999.
Figure 2. Comparison of ten-year P/E values and P/R

P/R reached an all-time two years after P/E did. The impact of
this two year difference can be illustrated by two hypothetical
401K investors: Mr. A and Ms. B. Following the PE warning, Mr.
A moved his assets from an S&P500 index fund to a money market
fund in January 1997, when the S&P500 was at 770. Following
P/R, Ms. B sold her fund in January 1999, when the S&P500 was
at 1210. Ms. B enjoyed two more years of 25% gains that Mr. PE
missed, yet still was out of stocks during the crash. Furthermore,
Ms. B has already had an opportunity to buy back into the index
fund at lower prices (if she had wished to do so) and her 401K
shows a larger balance at this time than if she had left it in
the stock fund. This is not true for Mr. A. [In real life, I gradually
moved my 401K from stock funds to 100% cash over late spring and
summer 1999. Since last fall, I have reinvested half back into
stock funds. This half is worth 15% more than it would be had I
left it in stock funds after summer 1999. The other half remains
in cash against possible further declines in the market below the
April 4 low.]
These examples show how P/R gave a better indication of true market
overvaluation (i.e. the stock index should be sold by long-term
investors) during the recent bull market than did the 10-year P/E.
This is important because premature warnings of an impending destructive
bear market destroys the credibility of bearish analysis, as those
who followed the warnings miss out on additional years of excellent
gains. It was early calls of a top that helped make valuation-based
arguments seem irrelevant and indirectly gave credence to the "new
paradigm" arguments. Nevertheless, despite its premature warning,
the ten-year P/E measure does do a good job of delineating the
stock cycles. Figure 3 shows why 10-yr P/E functions similarly
to P/R. The ten-year trailing average of earnings (the blue line
in Figure 3) shows a steady rise over time that is parallel with
R. Because of this parallelism, peaks in the P/E ratio will necessarily
show up at the same place as peaks in R.
The ratio E/R is also shown in Figure 3. E/R can be thought of
as a return on the business resources (R) available to business
management. The way R is calculated (cumulative
retained earnings) makes it similar to shareholder equity, except
R employs a constant dollar basis while shareholder equity is denominated
in nominal dollars. Just as the management effectiveness for an
individual company can be assessed using the return on equity,
the collective management effectiveness for all the companies in
the index can be assessed using E/R.[1] Obviously,
E/R will fluctuate with the business cycle. The graph of E/R in
Figure 3 is a trailing ten year average of E/R, which mostly smoothes
out the effect of normal business cycles. The effect of longer
term cycles, such as the Kondratiev cycle (the driver of the stock
cycle) can still be seen.
The smoothed E/R plot shows that return from resources declined
from about 7% before WW I to a little over 4% after WW I. A given
amount of R will produce about 40% less earnings it did a century
ago. This implies that for equal peak market valuations (as measured
by P/R), peak P/E values of today should be about 50% higher than
those of the past. Thus, whereas in the 19th and early 20th century
a P/E of 20 would be considered very high, today a P/E of 30 would
be considered as equivalently high. This is the reason why P/R
gave a closer prediction of the timing of the bull market peak
than did 10 year P/E.
Figure 3. Smoothed earnings vs. R, and E/R compared to real interest
rate

Comparison of E/R with a 50-yr trailing average of real interest
rate shows that real interest rates have also declined with time.
Overall, the returns businessmen have extracted from R are higher
than real interest rates. This spread, which is sort of a "risk
premium" for business investments relative to moneylending,
was about 3% prior to WW I and about 2.5% for the fifty years after
WW I. Over the last 35 years it has averaged around 1.5%. Real
economic activities have gradually become less profitable relative
to financial activities since WW I. This trend has accelerated
since the 1960's.
Additional financial ratios involving R are presented in Figure
4. Here we see a 10-yr trailing average of owner income (dividends)
from resources (D/R). Also shown is capital accumulation, or the
real rate of growth in R. By definition, since R is simply accumulated
retained earnings in constant dollars the rate at which R rises
is equal to the difference between earnings and dividends divided
by R, that is, (E-D)/R. As described in Stock
Cycles, this growth rate in R is equal to the long-term
rise in the stock index in real terms. It is also roughly equal
to the long term growth rate in GDP per capita.
Note that while E/R and D/R have fallen over the last century,
there has been no corresponding drop in the rate of capital accumulation.
It has remained around 2% over the entire period in the figure.
What this means is the drop in profitability of American business
over the last century has had no adverse effect on the rate of
growth of R. That is, it has not affected the rate at which stocks
rise in price or the rate at which the economy grows. As long as
E/R remains above 2% there will be no adverse effect on either
economic growth or long term stock price appreciation resulting
from a lack of capital accumulation. Figure 4 shows that the decline
in business returns (E/R) has shown up as a decline in the income
(dividends) available to owners of publicly-held businesses (i.e.
D/R).
Figure 4. Earnings, Dividends, and Capital Accumulation with Real
Interest Rate

So far we have seen that the decline in the rate of return from
business (E/R) has had no effect on either real economic growth
or real stock price appreciation. The primary impact of the decline
in business profitability was a dramatic drop in dividend income
(D/R). Consider, D/R has fallen from 1% above real interest rate
in the 1871-1911 period to 0.6% below real interest rates[2] in
the period since1960. Since dividends are responsible for the majority
of long-term stock returns, one would think that a 55% decline
in D/R would have resulted in a sizable decline in total return
from stock investments. But this did not happen. The reason is
the relevant dividend yield for calculating investor returns is
the dividend divided by the stock index market price (P) not equity
(R). That is, it is D/P that determines investor return, not D/R.
We can express investor dividend yield as the product of dividend
income from resources (D/R) and R/P, the reciprocal of P/R. The
advantage of this formulation is D/R over long periods of time
can be considered as roughly constant, just as is capital accumulation.
This means that long-term stock return is almost solely a function
of the prevailing level of P/R. The lower is P/R, the higher is
the total return on stocks. Since investors collectively determine
P by their bidding for shares on the stock exchange they control
the total return they receive over the long run.
What this means is the long-term return on stocks is determined
not from economic fundamentals, but rather by investor behavior,
or perhaps we might say investor culture. An investor culture that
demands high returns will manipulate P/R in such a way as to increase
the returns available from even rather lackluster economic fundamentals
(E/R). Let us consider the stock returns for the four decades after
1871 with those obtained during the most recent stock cycle (1966-2000).
E/R averaged 7.1% in the 1871-1911 period, much higher than the
4.2% return seen over 1966-2000. As a result, dividends (D/R) averaged
4.8% from 1871-1911 compared to 2.0% over 1966-2000. But when we
look at how investors priced the stock index we see that in the
first period, P/R varied in a narrow range from 0.63 to 1.34, and
R/P averaged 1.02. During the 1966-2000 cycle P/R varied from 0.27
to 1.46 with an average R/P of 1.79. Thus, we see than investors
dramatically lowered the average market price of the stock index
relative to R, without affecting its upper range. That is, the
amplitude of the stock cycle grew much larger.
Long-term real capital gains return is roughly equal to capital
accumulation, which was at 2.0% and 2.2% during the two periods.
In the 1871-1911 period, a very high D/R of 4.8% was reinvested
in a high-priced index, giving an average dividend return of 4.9%,
that when added to the 2% capital accumulation gives a 6.9% long-term
real return. For the 1966-2000 stock cycle, a much smaller level
of D/R (2.0%) was reinvested in a lower-priced stock index giving
an average dividend return of 3.6%, that when added to the 2.2%
capital accumulation, gives a 5.8% long-term real return. In actuality,
real return over the cycle was 6.8%, reflecting the rise of P/R
from 1.07 to 1.46 that occurred over this period.
By reducing the average level of P/R investors were able to moderate
the effect on investment return of a 40% drop in fundamental business
profitability (E/R) to a mere 16% drop in basal long term return
(from 6.9% to 5.8%). The 6.9% real return of a century ago was
3% above the average real interest rate. Similarly, the 5.8% real
return for the modern stock market is also 3% above the average
real interest rate. Thus, relative to the alternative, stocks produce
the same basal return today as they did a century ago.
Stocks have maintained this 3% risk premium at the cost of the
large swings in P/R associated with modern secular market trends.
I should point out that while average P/R values were reduced,
maximum values of P/R have not declined. On the other hand, the
minimum level of P/R is much lower than it was before 1911. Cycle
amplitude is vastly increased from what it was a century ago. Index
investors today can actually lose money over a 20 year period if
they pick the wrong points at which to buy (when P/R is high like
in 2000) and to sell (when P/R is low like in 1982). Clearly long-term
stock investing in the modern market entails much more risk than
it did 100 years ago, yet stock investors receive no additional
risk premium from their basal return.
Although the basal return from stocks over the last cycle was
5.8%, in actual fact, the S&P500 index returned 6.8% after
inflation. The extra 1% came entirely from the "irrational
exuberance" after September 1997, when P/R reached 1.07, its
level at the beginning of the cycle. That is, during the last cycle
stocks actually delivered a risk premium of about 4%, higher than
the level in the19th century. To maintain this higher premium,
all that is required is for the market to operate at a sufficiently
low value of P/R during the next cycle. To accomplish this from
current high levels of P/R will require a more powerful secular
bear market decline than in the past. To generate a sufficiently
powerful decline, stocks must first reach extremely high levels,
from which a long confidence-destroying, multi-decade decline can
then occur. The remarkably panic-free collapse of the NASDAQ in
what is so far not even a recession, suggests that our present
investor culture has developed a tolerance for a level of volatility
beyond anything seen in 19th century panics. Thus, we
can say that the recent irrational exuberance served two purposes.
First, it provided the extra return for the last stock cycle to
bring it up to the historical norm. Second, it set the stage for
the type of P/R decline necessary to maintain these high returns
in the future.
[1] Provided the index is sufficiently
representative of the entire economy, we do not have to worry about
changes in index composition. (This is a subtle point and is discussed
further in Stock
Cycles). Based on successful application of R for the S&P500
it appears that this index meets this criterion (which is not all
that surprising; the S&P500 index is intended to be representative
and does contain the bulk of total market capitalization ). The
NASDAQ index, for example, would not meet this criterion, despite
containing far more individual stocks.
[2] For reinvested dividends/interest
payments, dividend yields should be compared to real interest
rates. When one reinvests bond dividends in a bond portfolio or
simply accumulates interest in a bank account or money market fund,
one reinvests into dollar-denominated debt instruments. The real
value of these obligations will fall with inflation. When one reinvests
stock dividends in a stock portfolio, one reinvests into equity
(i.e. R) which is a real thing that retains its value against inflation.
Thus, a 5% interest payment used to buy more dollar-denominated
debt is a 5% nominal return because what one is buying is
money (dollars). In contrast, a 2% equity (R) dividend used to
buy 2% more equity (R) is a real return of 2%. For an inflation
rate of 3%, a 2% value of D/R is equivalent to a 5% nominal interest
rate. Even in the case when dividends and intrest payments are
not reinvested, stock dividends can still be considered as a real
return, whereas interest is nominal. The reason for this is that
an interest payment will lose value to inflation, whereas a dividend
payment will increase with time, more than keeping up with inflation
over the long run.
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