| From: | "T.Bavelaar" |
| Received: | 01/28/2004 07:38 PM |
| Subject: | Re: The Tale of Two Times |
Thanks for correcting that Joseph because I was wondering if it should
have read funnymentals. :)
More serious now, I found this tread very worthwhile to follow.
It made me think about my own definition of a bubble.
My contribution is arriving a bit late due to lack of time at my side
but here it is:
If bubbles are based upon something it will be hope. Hope that prices
will rise further.
My definition of a bubble is a valuation of an issue many times above
historical ("fundamental") valuations. The price will drop to a
fraction of the peak price (the highest price before the bubble started
to burst). What's left of a soap bubble in the air after a child
manages to touch it?
Correcting 50 pct is significant, but for me that's not enough to
qualify for a bubble in hind side.
I find the Dow and many other markets overvalued, but not bubbly.
Many tech stocks were bubbles when they peaked above 50 USD.
Today, the bubble stocks of the year 2000 are worth only pennies, IF
they still exist at all.
I like to follow breadt at
http://quote.yahoo.com/m0?u
The data shown at Yahoo is from Reuters.
When the Nasdaq reached 5000 at March 7th 2000, a total of 4873 issues
traded.
These days the total is around 3350 issues a day, despite
decimalization in April 2001.
Around 1500 stocks are gone or non-traded in few years time! In a
period were mergers and acquisitions were almost non-existent.
According my definition, many of those stocks were clearly bubbles in
early 2000. Nasdaq delisted them because they became illiquid penny
stocks.
In my opinion, "bubble" is used inappropriately most of the times.
However, I would agree with people who find many indexes overvalued.
Taco
Joseph Barbuto wrote:
I should have said manias are
not based on fundamentals, there are based on momentum plain
and simple. Joseph B
-----
Original Message -----
Sent:
Tuesday, January 27, 2004 2:35 PM
Subject:
[Longwaves Forum]Re: The Tale of Two Times
Joseph,
I've thought some
more about Joe Coleman's point and about my own use of the term
"bubble."
In 1720, when the
South Seas Bubble burst, the market crash that followed took the
average stock down 98%. In 2000, when the mania peaked and the most
frothy of stocks crashed, the average stock did not crash.
That is a significant difference and as I said before I attribute it to
the fact that the underlying mania was (and still is)
being fed by the authorities as no previous bubble's mania has
ever been.
I do expect all
hell to break loose when the credit bubble bursts and I think what the
average stock will see at that time will be a sort of delayed
reaction compared to what the average stock saw in 1720.
I don't know
whether that means I'm in the camp that believes there was and
still is a stock market bubble, or in the camp that believes there was
a stock market bubble and there is still a big part of it left, or
what, and I don't think it really matters that much. My view is
clear enough: we have seen and are still seeing the greatest mania, the
greatest hubris, and the greatest denial in a very, very long time,
perhaps in all of history; it's not over yet; and when it is, it ain't
gonna be pretty.
Regards,
Bill
Joseph Barbuto <>
wrote:
Bill, be patient if you
look at all bubbles there are based on one thing, fundamentals.
Valuation
defines risk, it has nothing to do with timing,
this market will do in time what is always has done proved the majority
wrong.
Let the bulls give you
all the reasons for this market, manias and bubbles will end as the
always do, back to long term valuations based on real earnings, book
value. There has no exception on record. why would anyone invest with
those odds are beyond me. Joseph B
-----
Original Message -----
Sent:
Tuesday, January 27, 2004 1:30 PM
Subject:
[Longwaves Forum]Re: The Tale of Two Times
Joe,
The credit
bubble will I think end in a crash - including a stock market crash.
Regarding the
stock market of the late 90s to present, Joe Ehardt says it was only a
few stocks that were in bubbles, he says they crashed, he says the bear
market that resulted is over.
I disagree.
I think the mania, the hubris, and the denial that
were behind the bubble in the few stocks Joe talks about are still
alive and well. I think the vast majority of stocks are still grossly
over-valued. I think when the credit bubble bursts it will very likely
mark the end of that mania. And there's going to be hell to pay at
that point IMO - for almost all stocks.
I doubt the
average stock will drop 98% over a two-year period as it did following
the 1720 bubble peak, but I think it will drop long and hard. I think
it is at least as likely as not that there will not be much of a stock
market at all by the end of the next Longwave.
So what camp
does that put me in? The camp that believes there was and still is a
stock market bubble? I'm not sure. But it is my view that mania
is still with us - and will be until the credit bubble bursts.
Regards,
Bill
Joe Coleman <>
wrote:
Bill, by definition, bubbles
do end in such manner. Your argument is classic non-sequiter logic. If
one posits we are in a bubble, and all previous bubbles have burst with
significant consequences for all those in the bubble, does it not
follow this bubble will do so as well.
Joe Coleman
-----
Original Message -----
Sent:
Tuesday, January 27, 2004 12:26 PM
Subject:
[Longwaves Forum]Re: The Tale of Two Times
Joe,
I don't
agree that all bubbles must end in crashes just because all
past bubbles have ended in crashes. The present mania is being
fed by the authorities as no previous bubble has ever been. They have
managed to keep total credit growing, they have managed to keep
unemployment from soaring, and they have managed not only to keep stock
prices from collapsing but to get quite a strong market bounce. Some
think they can continue to pull this off indefinitely. I am not among
them.
Regards,
Bill
Hello Bill,
Bubbles end in
crashes, both being of relatively short duration and excessive in
nature. Millennial or centurial period declines of civilizations are
gradual by comparison. The case for the latter kind of decline is much
stronger than the first.
Joe
-----
Original Message -----
Sent:
Tuesday, January 27, 2004 4:00 AM
Subject:
[Longwaves Forum]Re: The Tale of Two Times
Joe,
It is
my view that the market mania that ended (or at least appears at this
point to have ended) in 2000 is not merely one degree larger than the
one that ended in 1929 but at least two. In other words, at
least one degree larger than the one that ended in 1720.
An
immediate crash is not necessarily the result of such a gigantic top,
and the bottom of the gigantic down-wave that follows such a top does
not necessarily come within a matter of years. Think of the decline
from the Golden Age of Rome to the depths of the Dark Ages, Joe. If
I'm right the present decline will be at least that large in degree and
could be at least that long in duration.
Regards,
Bill
I recall
during discussions in CY 2000 that Superbears were making two claims.
One was that the peak in that "bubble" reflected, in Elliott Wave
terms, a market top that was one degree larger than 1929. IOW, a more
severe crash than 1929 was to be its hallmark. Second was that the
decline in the 1929-32 market would be the minimalist model or profile
for the decline in the current market.
As I worked
contemporaneously on my own technical studies, it became my conclusion
was that the peak in the current era market was one degree smaller
rather than larger, which meant that the market would not immediately
trace out the utter destruction in valuation associated with 1929-32.
In the
attached charts, the peaks in the DJIA in these two time periods have
been synchronized to occur at the same point in the chart.
I wonder --
almost 1,000 days later, did the market confirm the contention of the
Superbears or did it lend considerable credibility to the alternative
analysis?
Joe
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> ATTACHMENT part 2 image/gif name=Comparison of Two 2000-Day
Periods in DJIA.gif
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